I'm fully naive to this, but still no one has been able to explain why then to use King does everywhere show his contract included four voided years worth of cap hits? If it is true that all the voided years hit in 2022, why does 2023, 2024 and 2025 even get structured into the contract if no hits actually occur?
The voided years are solely added to reduce the cap hit during a short period of time, mostly a single season.
Let's take a look at what the Packers could do with Adams by adding void years to basically a one-year contract. Just to be clear, that is meant to be an example, I'm not suggesting the team should actually make a deal like that.
Here we go. The Packers could sign Adams to a 1-year, $25 million deal without any void years, taking a cap hit of $25 million in 2022. They could offer him a deal paying him a base salary of $1 million in 2022 and a signing bonus of $24 million and add void years (up to a maximum four) to reduce the cap hit for next year though.
Here's how the cap hit in 2022 would look like with void years added:
One void year: $13 million
Two yoid years: $9 million
Three void years: $7 million
Four void years: $5.8 million
But, as soon as the deal voids, the remaining prorated portion of the signing bonus would count against the cap immediately. There's no way to designate those hits as a post June 1 release either as the deal automatically voids before the start of the new league year.
Therefore the suggested deal for Adams would result in dead money counting against the Packers cap in 2023 as follows:
One void year: $12 million
Two void years: $16 million
Three void years: $18 million
Four void years: $19.2 million
I have to admit that I don't know if there's any way to spread out that cap hit if an extension is signed before the deal voids but I actually don't believe that's possible.